Note: Kindly prepare yourself to score good marks in SAP BO. This is for TrenDNXT level 1 dumps.

1) SAP BO client run on 64 bit only
A. A.SAP BO server run on both 32 and 64 bit
B. B.SAP BO client/server both run on both 32& 64 bit

Ans: Bo server only 64 bit, client on both

2) How to synchronize the data from two different data sources
Ans: Merge Dimension.

3) APS run on
A. Oracle JVM
B. SAP JVM
C. none of the above

Ans: SAP JVM

4) Which is called as Canned report
A. Canned Report- Financial Analysis
B. other option

Ans: Canned reports are predefined reports.

5) Which is called as Crosstab report
Ans: standard report

6) Use of Derived table
Ans: For Complex calculation and functions
                      Or
 A derived table is defined by an SQL query at the universe level that can be used as a logical table in Designer.

7) Use of OpenDocument in webi
A. To open a document from start command line
B. To open two webi report
C. To save the sessions of the report
D. None of the above

Ans: For linking to Webi docs

8) Rank function is not used for the following
A. Retrieve TOP 10 list of customers
B. Retrieve BOTTOM 10 list of customers
C. Retrieve TOP 20% list of customers
D. none of the above

Ans: Retrieve top 20% list of customers.

9) Risk of overloading server, n/w, Client PC avoided by
A. SQL Aggregate
B. Projection Aggregate
C. Cumulative Aggregate
D. All of the above
Ans: SQL Aggregate.

10) which is true
A. Report filter is used to restricting data from data source
B. Query filter is used to restricting data from data source
C. Report filter and query filter is used to filter the data in the data source
D. none of the above

Ans: Query filter is used to restricting data from data source

11) Input, Output Server File Repository maintenance
A. Output Server File Repository maintain the target file instances
B. Input Server File Repository maintain the target file instances
C. Output Server File Repository maintain the target file instances and  input Server File Repository maintain the source files and reports
D. none of the above

Ans: 3rd option

12) which is not true
A. Input control can be applied to a specific section in a report
B. Input control cannot be applied to a specific section in a report
C. Input control can be applied to a column in a report
D. Input control can be applied as a filter

Ans: Input control cannot be applied to a specific section in in a report.

13) UDT can be used only when
A. Linked universe
B. Stored procedures as data source
C. Web Intelligence 3.x and Live office

Ans: All of the above

14) Folders in IDT in designer is
A. Classes
B. Objects
C. Measures
D. None of the above

Ans: Classes

15) Which can be used as an internal function without reusing the query
A. @select
B. @prompt
C. @where
D. none of the above

Ans: @select

16) Union of 2 queries can be done by
A. SET operator
B. Union clause
C. Combine

Ans: Combine query.

17) Extension Webi document
A. .wid
B. .rep
C. .xls

Ans: .wid

18) IDT can be done on
A. Local
B. shared
C. common
D. both local and shared

Ans: both local and shared.

19) Which is not true about connections

20) What is FAN TRAP?
A. Many to one join
B. one to many join
C. one to one
D. many to many

Ans: The Fan trap occurs when a “one to many” join links a table which is in turn linked by another “one to many” join. (ANS)

21) What is CHASM TRAP?
Ans: Chasm trap occurs when two “many to one” joins converge on a single table.

22) Following option is used synchronize data from two different data sources in webi
Ans: Merge data based on similar dimensions

23) which operation can be used to union of two queries
Ans: union

24) Difference b/w Break and section?

Break: is applied on whole block it gives you row at the bottom of block for subtotal. It breaks a whole report into the smaller groups according to your select column. When you apply a chart on this block it only gives you one chart because it is only single block.

Section: When you apply section on block it divides your report into smaller section and the column which you apply section will come out as a heading out of the block. When you apply chart on this block, every section have an individual chart for its own section.

25) Below tool is not a part of BO 4.0
A. Webi rich client
B. CMC
C. BI Launch pad
D. Desktop intelligence

Ans: remaining option

26) Difference between BO 3.1 & BO 4.0?
Ans:

27) ------------- option is used to eliminate usage SQL in business layer
Ans: Select, where

28) Business Layer query options, provides the facility to select multiple options, such as:
Ans: Query Limits:

a) Limit size of result set to __ rows.
b) Limit execution time to __ minutes
c) Warn if cast estimate exceeds __ minutes

Query Options:
a) Allow use of subqueries
b) Allow use of union, intersect and minus operations
c) Allow complex operands in query panel
d) Multiple SQL statements for each measure

29) UNX file consists of
A. connections
B. data foundation

Ans:all the above

30) What are differences between information design tool (IDT) and universe design tool (UDT)?
Ans:

• IDT is the new tool introduced in BI 4. Concept is same as UDT, but presentation is different.
• IDT (New Universe Designer in Business Objects) = combination of Business View Manager + Universe design tool + Data Federator

Differences:

• IDT is the new tool introduced in BI 4. Concept is same as UDT, but presentation is different.
• In IDT, they have Data foundation layer (instead of structure pane) and Business Layer (instead of Class n object pane). First of all, a project is created, then a relational or OLAP connection, then data foundation and then business layer. Then the universe is published as .unx
• We have structure pane and class n object pane in UDT. 
• UDT it is not possible.
• They have introduced the concept of ‘views’ in Data Foundation Layer. If you have many tables to be used in the universe, it would be difficult to manage joins and structure. So you can create multiple windows.
• For ex., one view or window would be related to client and all the related tables. Another window could be related to product and related tables, and another could be related to FACT and the main dimension tables. The master view would be the union of all these views.
• In UDT, you can add a table any time and then can drag it to object pane to create objects automatically.
• In IDT, automatic classes and objects are created only once when you create the Business Layer for the first time. After that, if you add any table, you have to create objects based on it manually.
• Identifying loops and creating contexts is not as clean in IDT as in UDT.

31) What are differences between UNV & UNX?
Ans:

 UNV 
- Supported by Webi ONLY
- Single Data source
 UNX 
- Supported by Webi, Dashboard, Crystal Enterprise & Explorer
- Connect to multiple data sources within ONE UNX

32) 26. detail object...which of the following is true/false

33) why should we disable LOV's(List Of Values) for attribute
A. as users will rarely use it as selection attribute
B. cannot use it as attribute selection
C. Rarely will user use attribute as condition

Ans: don't know (but you can reject above options)

34) Adaptive Processing servers
Ans: It is used for refreshing a report

35) Operator is not a part of combined query in Web Intelligence 4.0 : Difference
36) Adaptive Job Server - To schedule a report
37) Scope of Analysis: Scope of Analysis determines the additional objects to be included in the query so that the data will be available in drill mode. Before you can drill, you must use Scope of Analysis to select the objects to be retrieved in addition to those that were placed in the Result Objects.

38) Calculation Mode of Rank Functions : Count, Percentage, Cumulative Sum, Cumulative Percentage.

39) What is the prompts order in BO 4.1?
a) As you defined   
b) Ascending to Descending 
c) You can test the order

40) Where are the servers created in BO 4.1?
a) CCM         
B) CMC
c) CMS
d) Both A & B

Ans: Both A & B

41) What is the use of Report Application Servers?
Ans: Viewing in DHTML mode by

42) What is the use of Connection Server?
a) Connect to DB
b) Connect to Wi-Fi 
c) To connect deski Webi 3-Tier

Ans: To connect deski Webi 3-Tier

43) Which Right …???…    Have the high priority?
a) Desired             b) granted     c) not specified

Ans: Desired

44) Where can we create LOV’s in Universe?
Ans: Universe object

45) Use of merged dimensions?
Ans: To merge data from two data providers.
46) Common Dimension Merging

47) Query Scripting  is  used for
Ans: Report Performance

48) Types of filters
Ans: Query filter- Report Filter

49) Where can we enable Query Scripting?
Ans: Query Properties, Report Properties

50) Webi, Deski Reports are running, what will happen when Universe connection is exporting.
Ans: Will not run

51) What is alias?
Ans: Use of a table    b)Use of a view
52) Which can be auto detected in a Universe?
a) Cardinality b) Joins c) All of the above.

Ans: All of the above.

53) Currently Universe is using a DB, if you want to connect to Sybase then what happens?
Ans:  Below could be a checklist for you:

1. Make sure all tables with all used columns (used in report) have been created in new database.
2. Referential Integrity is at place.
3. The database user used to create connection has same privileges which you had in old reporting database.
4. Once new reporting database is ready, refresh universe structure and check if there is any change?
5. You also need to make sure the syntax used in the universe is as per new reporting database. For example: If I am shifting my reporting database from Oracle to Teradata, I will have to replace nvl() function with coalease() function wherever I have used in object definitions.
6. Once done, run integrity check and check if all joins and columns are in place and everything is parsing correctly.
7. You also need to create indexes (if created in old database) as their absence can affect performance issue.
8. Once satisfied with the universe, save it and export to repository.
9. Open any of the associated report and refresh and check if any issues.

54) Which Window Server Management tool is used to move, add, etc?
a) CMC    b) CMS   c) CCM

Ans: CMS

55) What is the Max Context in Universe?
a) 65            b) 150    c) No Restriction          d) 25

Ans: No Restriction

56) Tool to convert BO Deski Reports to Webi Reports?
a) Import Wizard b) Report Conversion Tool c) Report Comparison Tool   d) Business Viewing Tool

Ans: Report Conversion Tool

57) The Input Controls used in WEBI Reports are?
58) What is the Internal Function used in WEBI report ………….?
a) @Select    b) @where    c) @prompt     d) none

59) How can we get the union of two queries?
a) By SET Operator b) By using Combine queries button   c) by using Union of queries d) none

Ans: by using Union of queries

60) Desired   object features?
61) True about Universe object:
a.Designer buids into universe
b.centralised
c.error proof
d. all

62. To limit size of result set to 50000 parameter is used
a.LIMIT
b.SQL
c.CONTROL
d.LINK

63.True about Detail object in BO
a. Detail object attached to dimensions
b. Cannot drill on details nor link on details when linking on multiple data sources.
c.both a&b
d. none

64. Conditions
a. are applied  on query to restrict data from datasource
b.  on report to hide data which is already retrieved from datasource
c. both a&b
d none

65. New SAP BO 4.0 is
a. Parameter & LOV are not connected by default when BO is created
b. Ability to divide one business layer into multiple views
c. One universe access multiple data sources.
d. all

66 what is true
A SAP BO server run on both 32 and 64 bit but SAP BO client run only on 64 bits
b. SAP BO client run on both 32 and 64 bit but SAP BO server run only on 64 bits
c. SAP BO client/server both run on both 32& 64 bit
D. None

Ans: Bo server only 64 bit, client on both

Note: We have tried solving the question paper in a very short time span as per our understanding and the study material we had. Feel free to contact us through comment box or through email if you have some descriptive answer.

Q1. Answer the following questions in brief                                   
A. What are the two ways by which public cloud helps the customers to reduce their IT costs?
Answer:

1. Flexible billing models enable customers to pay only for what they use.
2. It reduces the capital expenditures required for setting up the infrastructure.

 Practice Question - What are the components of a cloud computing environment?
 Answer: client, application, platform, infrastructure, server

B. What are the two limitations of SKI Virtualization?
Answer:

1. It is not possible, for instance, to run different versions or even different patch levels of a particular operating system on the same machine. 
2. Whatever versions exist in the host, that same software will be provided in the guest. SKI also sacrifices the security and reliability provided by other virtualization  methods. 

C. A company interested in cloud computing is looking for a service provider who offers a set of basic services such as virtual server provisioning and on-demand storage that can be combined into a platform for deploying and running customized applications. What type of cloud computing model fits these requirements?
Answer: Infrastructure as a Service.

D. How can a software development company leverage the PaaS cloud computing delivery model?
Answer:

Q2. Answer the following questions appropriately.
A. What is 3 - 4 - 5 rule of cloud computing?
Answer: This 3 - 4 - 5 rule stands for:

3 cloud service models
4 deployment models
5 essential characteristics of cloud computing infrastructure

RULE 3 - Cloud service models:
IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service):
The capability provided to the consumer is to provision processing, storage, networks, and other fundamental computing resources where the consumer is able to deploy and run arbitrary software, which can include operating systems and applications.
The consumer does not manage or control the underlying cloud infrastructure but has control over operating systems, storage, deployed applications, and possibly limited control of select networking components (e.g., host firewalls)

PaaS (Platform as a Service):
The capability provided to the consumer is to deploy onto the cloud infrastructure consumer created or acquired applications created using programming languages and tools supported by the provider.
The consumer does not manage or control the underlying cloud infrastructure including network, servers, operating systems, or storage, but has control over the deployed applications and possibly application hosting environment configurations

SaaS(Software as a Service):
The capability provided to the consumer is to use the provider's applications running on a cloud infrastructure. The applications are accessible from various client devices through a thin client interface such as a web browser (e.g., webbased email).
The consumer does not manage or control the underlying cloud infrastructure including network, servers, operating systems, storage, or even individual application capabilities, with the possible exception of limited user specific application configuration settings

RULE 4 - Deployment models:
Private Cloud (Single Org)
The cloud infrastructure is operated solely for a single organization. It may be managed by the
organization or a third party, and may exist on-premises or off-premises, Also called as “Enterprise Cloud”

Community Cloud (Multiple Org)
The cloud infrastructure is shared by several organizations and supports a specific community that has shared concerns (e.g., mission, security requirements, policy, or compliance considerations).
It may be managed by the organizations or a third party and may exist on-premises or off premises.
Public Cloud (For Public)
The cloud infrastructure is made available to the general public or a large industry group and is owned by an organization selling cloud services, Also called as “Internet Cloud”

Hybrid Cloud
The cloud infrastructure is a composition of two or more clouds (private, community, or public)
Leasing public cloud services when private cloud capacity is insufficient, Also called as “Mixed Cloud”

RULE 5 - Characteristics:
On-demand self-service:
Users can provision servers and networks with little human intervention.

Broad network access:
Any computing capabilities are available over the network. Many different devices are allowed access through standardized mechanisms.

Resource pooling:
Multiple users can access clouds that serve other consumers according to demand.
Cloud services need to share resources between users and clients in order to reduce costs.

Elasticity:
Provisioning is rapid and scales out or in based on need.

Metered or measured service:
One of the compelling business use cases for cloud computing is the ability to "pay as you go“, where the consumer pays only for the resources that are actually used by his applications.

Note: We have tried uploading as much as we can, there may be 4 to 6 questions which you wouldn't find it here but surely we will upload it soon. So stay tuned. At last, Thanks to Pintu one of our pro-active user who helped in this a lot. 

Question
“Partitioning of data would benefit performance” belongs to
Select one:
a. All of the given choices
b. Resource Mgmt of performance
c. Co-ordination model of performance
d. Data Model of performance

The correct answer is: Data Model of performance

Question
Which of the following is not related to Resource Mgmt of Performance
Select one:
a. Maintaining multiple copies of key data would benefit performance
b. System elements that need to be aware of, and manage, time and other performance-critical resources
c. Process/thread models
d. Prioritization of resources

The correct answer is: Prioritization of resources

Question
Information hiding methods is one of the
Select one:
a. Availability tactic
b. Reliability tactic
c. Usability tactic
d. Modifiabilty tactic

The correct answer is: Modifiabilty tactic

Question
Utility tree is to represeting
Select one:
a. Architecturally significant requirement (ASR)
b. Functional requirement
c. Stakeholders requirement
d. Business requirement

The correct answer is: Architecturally significant requirement (ASR)

Question
Which requirements can affect binding time decisions out of the following mentioned?
Select one:
a. Configurations
b. Portability
c. Regional distinctions
d. All of the choices given

The correct answer is: All of the choices given

Question
One of the statements given below is not true with respect to stakeholders' priorities. Which one?
Select one:
Database Designer: Information security issues?
Users/Customers: How easy it is to use?
Release & Configuration Manager: How do I replace of a subsystem with minimal impact ?
Application Development team: How do I plan for division of work?

The correct answer is: Release & Configuration Manager: How do I replace of a subsystem with minimal impact ?

Question
Decomposition,Uses,Layered and class are keywords used in
Select one:
a. Module structure
b. Allocation structure
c. Structure of structure
d. Component and connector structure

The correct answer is: Module structure

Question
Identification of potential quality attributes from business goals is the measure step of
Select one:
a. ASR
b. QAW
c. PALM
d. Utility Tree

The correct answer is: PALM

Question
Methods to improve Usability include (Pick the wrong answer)
Select one:
a. Intuitive UI
b. Undo / redo feature
c. Displaying status
d. Asking user to enter name twice

The correct answer is: Asking user to enter name twice

Question
One of the statements given below is not true with respect to stakeholders' priorities. Which one?
Select one:
a. Database Designer: Information security issues?
b. Application Development team: How do I plan for division of work?
c. Users/Customers: How easy it is to use?
d. Release & Configuration Manager: How do I replace of a subsystem with minimal impact ?

The correct answer is: Release & Configuration Manager: How do I replace of a subsystem with minimal impact ?

Question
Architecture of software is based on?

Select one:
A. Requirements
B. Design
C. Design and requirements
D. neither Design nor requirements

The correct answer is: Requirements

Question
Architectural pattern that best fits online flight booking application is

Select one:
A. Distributed Architecture
B. Model View Controller Architecture
C. Layer Architecture
D. Service Oriented Architecture

The correct answer is: Model View Controller Architecture

Question
Which of the following represents a Hierarchical organization?

Select one:
Client-Server
Deployment
Layered Structure
Decomposition

The correct answer is: Layered Structure

Question
Example(s) of Interchangeable software components

Select one:
A. All of these
B. Commercial off-the-shelf components
C. publicly available apps
D. open source software

The correct answer is: All of these

Question
Ability to “continuously provide”  service without failure means

Select one:
Performance
Usability
Reliability
Availability

The correct answer is: Reliability

Question
Which of the following does not appear on a diagram describing the WIndows Architecture?

Select one:
User Mode
SQLite
Kernel Mode
DLLs

The correct answer is: SQLite

Question
Deployment, implementation and work assignmnet are the keywords used in
Select one:
a. Component and connector structure
b. Structure of structure
c. Module structure
d. Allocation structure

The correct answer is: Allocation structure

Question
How is the system to relate to non-software structures in its environment such as CPU
Select one:
a. Component and connector structure
b. Structure of structure
c. Module structure
d. Allocation structure

The correct answer is: Allocation structure

Question
Learnability feature of usability attribute provides
Select one:
a. User familiarity to the system
b. Confidence to the user
c. Minimizing the impact of error
d. Adopt user need

The correct answer is: User familiarity to the system



Question
Why is software architecture called vehicle for stakeholder communication?
Select one:
a. Architecture provides a common language in which different concerns can be expressed
b. Architecture is more of technical in nature and not meant for all stakeholders
c. Both a and b
d. Each stakeholder of a software system is concerned with different characteristics of the system affected by architecture

The correct answer is: Both a and b

Question
Which software structure of module structure is useful for "implementing systems on top of 'virtual machine' portability?
Select one:
a. Class
b. Layered
c. Uses
d. Decomposition

The correct answer is: Layered

Question
Record and Playback is a

Select one:
Strategy for one of the testabilty tactics
New feature in modern music web apps
Performance enhancing tactics
Methodology to ensure the security feature of the system

Question
QAW(Quality Attribute Workshop)  is focused on:

Select one:
Reference model level concerns
System level concerns
None of the above
Component level concerns

The correct answer is: System level concerns

Question
---------------- pattern facilitates accessing shared resources and services for large numbers of distributed distributed clients.

Select one:
A. Web server
B. Client server
C. Data server
D. Proxy server

The correct answer is: Client server

Question
How do developing organizations influence by architects?

Select one:
A. Long term business
B. All of the mentioned
C. Organization structure
D. Immediate business

The correct answer is: All of the mentioned

Question
----------------- pattern suggests a solution in which components interact with via announced messages or events.

Select one:
A. Newspaper
B. Bookkeeper
C. Librarian
D. Publish Subscribe

The correct answer is: Publish Subscribe

Question
------------- pattern set a system of “equal” distributed computational entities connected to each other via a common protocol to self organize and achieve high availability and implacability.

Select one:
A. Agents
B. ATM
C. Bots
D. P2P

The correct answer is: P2P

Question
What are the concerns raised for the scenario selection procedure?

Select one:
A. How would we know if the vendor representatives were being factual?
B. Both these
C. None
D. Does the locality of change necessarily yield higher cost?

The correct answer is: How would we know if the vendor representatives were being factual?

Question
The module B expects A to write the count of total transactions handled at a particular memory location. The dependency of B on A is of

Select one:
A. Data semantics dependency
B. Location dependency
C. Data type dependency
D. Sequence dependency

The correct answer is: Data semantics dependency

Question
Which of the following can be included under observable measure?

Select one:
A. How easy it is to integrate?
B. How well the systems during execution satisfy its behavioral requirements?
C. How easy it is to test and modify?
D. All of the mentioned

The correct answer is: How well the systems during execution satisfy its behavioral requirements?

Question
The important categorie(s) of architecture structure is / are

Select one:
A. All of these mentioned
B. Allocation
C. Component and Connector
D. Module

The correct answer is: All of these mentioned

Question
In ----------------- pattern interaction, persistent data is exchanged between multiple data accessors and at least one shared data store.

Select one:
A. Shared Data
B. NDF
C. DBMS
D. Shared Object

The correct answer is:  Shared Data

Question
What is the main goal for the choice of scenarios?

Select one:
A. They should reflect the important quality requirements
B. There be a sufficient number to reflect the views of all the stakeholders
C. Both mentioned
D. None mentioned

The correct answer is: There be a sufficient number to reflect the views of all the stakeholders

Question
Which of the following is not a performance tactic?

Select one:
A. Resource Demand
B. Resource Management
C. Resource Monitor
D. Resource Arbitration

The correct answer is: Resource Monitor

Question
There are several modules that calls a service provided by A. What is the implicit dependency on A?

Select one:
A. Quality of service provided by A
B. Semantics of the result generated by A
C. the fact that A shares the same memory location of these calling modules
D. The assumption that A exists when calling the service of A
The assumption that A exists when calling the service of A

The correct answer is: The assumption that A exists when calling the service of A

Question
An on-line tax-filing application uploads the form-16 document from the employer and it fills the tax return form of an employee once she logs into the system. The file-tax-return button submits the return form and also deducts additional tax amount from her registered credit card. From quality attribute perspective, this application improves

Select one:
A. interoperability
B. performance
C. usability
D. availability

The correct answer is: usability

Question
Architecture based process includes which of the following

Select one:
A. Creating the business case for the system
B. Analyzing or valuating the architecture
C. Understanding the requirements
D. All of these mentioned

The correct answer is: All of these mentioned

Question
Adding an intermediate component between two interacting modules in an application will improve:

Select one:
A. Security of the System
B. Reliability of the System
C. Availability of the System
D. Modifiability of the System

The correct answer is: Modifiability of the System

Question
What is architectural style?

Select one:
A. Architectural style is a description of component types
B. It is a pattern of run-time control
C. All of these mentioned
D. It is set of constraints on architecture

The correct answer is: All of these mentioned

Question
What would happen if different organization were given same set of requirements?

Select one:
A. It will produce same architecture
B. It may or may not produce same architecture
C. None of the mentioned
D. It will produce different architecture

The correct answer is: None of the mentioned

Question
Availability ensures

Select one:
A. Attainment of reliability
B. All of these mentioned
C. Availability ensures
D. Minimize service outage time by fault reduction

The correct answer is: All of these mentioned

Question
------------- pattern splits system into a number of computationally independent execution structures to achieve optimized usage of resources.

Select one:
A. Layers
B. Multi tier
C. Agent
D. Broker

The correct answer is: Multi tier

Question
In a GUI application, when a user presses a button an action event is generated. What is action event in a general quality scenario?

Select one:
A. Artifact
B. Stimulus
C. Response
D. Source

The correct answer is: Stimulus

Question
------------------ pattern is a tactic to achieve highly efficient processing of enormous volumes of data at petabyte scale.

Select one:
A. Map Reduce
B. Supercomputer
C. Shift Reduce
D. Goggle

The correct answer is: Map Reduce

Question
------------------------ is a tactic to achieve Security.

Select one:
A. Maintain Audit Trail
B. License Key
C. Discover
D. copyright

The correct answer is: Maintain Audit Trail

Question
There is a monitor that records the status of the system during runtime. This is an example of

Select one:
A. Modifiability of the System
B. Availability of the System
C. Security of the System
D. Reliability of the System

The correct answer is: Security of the System

Question
--------------- pattern helps to achieve separation of concerns such that modules of system may be independently developed and maintained.

Select one:
A. SOA
B. Microkernel
C. Layered
D. MVC

The correct answer is: Layered

Question
The architects are influenced by which of the following factors?

Select one:
A. Background and experience of the architects
B. Customers and end users
C. Developing organization
D. All of these mentioned Correct

The correct answer is: All of these mentioned

Question
-------------- pattern describes a collection of distributed components that provide and/or consume the services.

Select one:
A. SOA
B. Client server
C. P2P
D. Broker

The correct answer is: SOA

Question
Source of stimulus can be

Select one:
A. Any actuator
B. Stimulus
C. None of these mentioned
D. Environment

The correct answer is: Any actuator

Question
----------------- pattern is characterized by successive transformation of streams of data using generic, loosely coupled components.

Select one:
A. Blackboard
B. Pipes and filters
C. Classroom
D. Abstraction

The correct answer is: Pipes and filters

Question
Which of the following is the main goal for the choice of scenarios?

Select one:
A. They should reflect the important quality requirements
B. Both
C. None of these
D. There be a sufficient number to reflect the views of all the stakeholders

The correct answer is: Both

Question
The incorrect method for structural design is?

Select one:
A. More procedural approach
B. Handling of larger and more complex products
C. Transition of problem models to solution models
D. Designing Object oriented systems

The correct answer is: Handling of larger and more complex products

Question
The proto scenarios recorded on flip charts as phrases as which of the following?

Select one:
A. WWW client access
B. Double number of user
C. All of these mentioned
D. Degraded Operation

The correct answer is: All of these mentioned

Question
Denial of Service attack affects the __________ of the system.

Select one:
A. All of these
B. Usability
C. Availability
D. Security

The correct answer is: Availability

Question
Tactics which ensures interoperability includes

Select one:
A. Orchestrate and Tailor interface
B. Both of these
C. None of these
D. Discover service and Tailor interface

The correct answer is: Both of these

Question
To capture data store and access to data from the store by various components you use

Select one:
A. Module dependency structure
B. component and hardware dependency
C. component connector structure
D. work-allocation of modules

The correct answer is: component connector structure

Question
--------------- pattern defines a runtime component that mediates the communication between a number of clients and servers.

Select one:
A. Proxy
B. Middleware
C. Broker
D. Load balancer

The correct answer is: Broker

Question
---------------- pattern separates out presentation from functionality of the system.

Select one:
A. Maps
B. UI/UX
C. MVC
D. Controller

The correct answer is: MVC

Question
Authorizing the user is a __________

Select one:
A. Usability tactic
B. Security tactic
C. Availability tactic
D. Performance tactic

The correct answer is: Security tactic

Question
Which of the following is the incorrect sequence Summary Steps for scenario selection process?

Select one:
A. Method presentation
B. Refinement and selection
C. Participant buy-in and expression of concerns and issues
D. All of these mentioned

The correct answer is: Participant buy-in and expression of concerns and issues

Question
Which among the following are true with regards to the architecture business cycle?

Select one:
A. All of these mentioned
B. None of these mentioned
C. The architecture affects the structure of developing organizations
D. The architecture can affect the enterprise goals of the developing organizations

The correct answer is: The architecture affects the structure of developing organizations

Note: We have tried solving the question paper in a very short time span as per our understanding and the study material we had. Feel free to contact us through comment box or through email if you have some descriptive answer.



Question) 
Answer)
In a wide SCSI, the device IDs from 8 to 15 have the highest priority, but the entire sequence of wide SCSI-IDs has lower priority than narrow SCSI IDs.

Therefore, the overall priority sequence for a wide SCSI is 7, 6, 5, 4, 3, 2, 1, 0, 15, 14, 13, 12, 11, 10, 9, and 8.

Question) Firewall configuration is difficult for which NFS version? Justify.
Answer)
NFS is a client server protocol that allows users to share files across a network. There are some problems with NFS as stated below:
● NFS relies on the inherently insecure UDP protocol
● Transactions between host and client are NOT encrypted
● Hosts and users cannot be easily authenticated, IP Spoofing is possible
● Persmissions are granted by normal access rules
● Firewall configuration is difficult because of the way NFS daemons work

NFSv3 requires dynamic ports between the NFS server and client which can cause problems getting through your firewall.

Question)
What are the three types of nodes maintained by JFFS2? Mention percentage hit by ‘Garbage Collector’ to reclaims space from various types of nodes.
Answer)
JFFS is a log structured file system, Nodes containing data and metadata are stored on the flash chips sequentially. There are three types of nodes defined and implemented by JFFS2. These are as follows:

1. JFFS2_NODETYPE_INODE - It contains all the inode metadata, as well as potentially a range of data belonging to the inode. However, it no longer contains a file name or the number of the parent inode.
2. JFFS2_NODETYPE_DIRENT - this node represents a directory entry, or a link to an inode. It contains the inode number of the directory in which the link is found, the name of the link and the inode number of the inode to which the link refers. 
3. JFFS2_NODETYPE_CLEANMARKER -- this node is written to a newly erased block to show that the erase operation has completed successfully and the block may safely be used for storage.

Garbage Collector (GC):
Samba is an open-source software suite that runs on Unix/Linux based platforms but is able to communicate with Windows clients like a native application. So Samba is able to provide this service by employing the Common Internet File System (CIFS).

Can we install on windows ? - No we can not install it on Windows. Samba can be run on many different platforms including Linux, Unix, OpenVMS and operating systems other than Windows and allows the user to interact with a Windows client or server natively. It can basically be described as the Standard Windows interoperability suite of programs for Linux and Unix.

Name of file to configure SAMBA: smb.conf

Question )
In a SCSI based interface, a target has to support multiple initiators. Explain how a target will handle an incoming read request when it is busy, giving complete steps of read request between such initiator and a target components (handling multiple imitators) of a SCSI interface. Clearly indicate any assumptions made.

Answer)
Assumptions :Let us assume we have one target T1 and three initiators I1, I2 and I3 with below SCSI IDs :

Initiator  SCSI ID
I1              6
I2              3
I3              5

The device with SCSI ID 7 has the highest priority on the SCSI bus and is usually assigned to the host adapter. The priority of other SCSI IDs is descending from 6 to 0.

Phases of SCSI bus :
There are basically 3 phases :
•Bus Free Phase
–Bus is not being used by anyone

•Arbitration Phase
–One or more initiators request use of the bus and
the one with the highest priority (SCSI ID order) is allowed to proceed

•Selection / Re-selection phase
–Initiator asserts BUS BUSY signal and
•places target’s address on the bus thus establishing a connection/session
–Re-selection applies for a target resuming an interrupted operation:
•target asserts BUS BUSY signal and places initiator’s address on the bus.

Steps for Bus Phase Sequence Read Operation

Question
Which of the following RAID levels gives maximum usable capacity?

Select one:
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 5
C. RAID 6
D. RAID 1

The correct answer is:  RAID 0

Question
Which logical operation is used for computing parity?

Select one:
A. Exclusive OR
B. Exclusive NOR
C. Inclusive NOR
D. Inclusive OR

The correct answer is: Exclusive OR

Question
Which of the following RAID implementation does not allow data recovery in case of disk failure?

Select one:
A. RAID 5
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 0
D. RAID 10

The correct answer is: RAID 0

Question
What is a hot Spare?

Select one:
A. It is a spare drive within a RAID array.
B. It is a drive that can be plugged in while the Storage array is powered on
C. It is an extra drive provided by the vendor to be plugged in in case of disk failure
D. It is a disk that is over heated

The correct answer is: It is a spare drive within a RAID array.

Question
What is a blast zone in RAID?

Select one:
A. It is the portion of disk burnt due to overheating
B. It is the area of impact when data is lost from a failed RAID set.
C. It is the portion platter damaged due to head crash
D. It is the area of impact when the disk explodes.

The correct answer is: It is the area of impact when data is lost from a failed RAID set.

Question
Which of the following statement is true for RAID 5?

Select one:
A. RAID 5 uses block level striping with distributed parity
B. RAID 5 is a hybrid of mirror sets and stripe sets
C. RAID 5 uses block level striping with double distributed parity
D. RAID 5 uses block level striping with a dedicated parity drive

The correct answer is: RAID 5 uses block level striping with distributed parity

Question
Journaling is preferred for

Select one:
A. Storing metadata
B. Storing logs
C. Faster file system recovery
D. Faster write operation

The correct answer is: Storing Faster file system recovery

Question
Examples of Journaling file system

Select one:
A. JFS
B. Ext2
C. Ext3
D. UFS

The correct answer is: Ext3

Question
Wear leveling affects

Select one:
A. RAM
B. Optical storage
C. Hard disk
D. Flash

The correct answer is: Flash

Question
Every File or directory has unique

Select one:
A. Inode
B. Directory
C. Pathname
D. Inode & pathname

The correct answer is: Inode & pathname

Question
Which of the following is not a non volatile storage device?

Select one:
a. Hard Disk
b. Memory Stick
c. NVRAM
d. Random Access Memory

The correct answer is: Random Access Memory

Question
Solid State devices are best suited for ______________ writes & _________________ reads.

Select one:
A. Frequent Random, Frequent Sequential
B. Frequent Sequential, Infrequent Random
C. Infrequent Sequential , Frequent Random
D. Infrequent Random, Frequent Sequential

The correct answer is: Infrequent Sequential , Frequent Random

Question
Which of the following is sequential access storage device?

Select one:
A. CD-ROM
B. Main Memory
C. Hard Disk
D. Tape Cartridge

The correct answer is: Tape Cartridge

Question
A “Logical Volume Manager” helps in

Select one:
A. Virtualizing storage
B. provide direct access to the underlying storage
C. Manage disk space efficiently without having to know the actual hardware details
D. Both storage virtualization and efficient disk space management

The correct answer is: Both storage virtualization and efficient disk space management

Question
Physical Volumes are

Select one:
A. None of these mentioned
B. Disk or disk partitions used to construct logical volumes
C. The space on a physical storage that represent a logical volume
D. A bunch of disks put together that can be made into a logical volume

The correct answer is: Disk or disk partitions used to construct logical volumes

Question
Which of the following are true. Logical Volumes _____

Select one:
A. Can span across multiple volume groups
B. Can span across multiple physical volumes
C. Can be constructed only using a single physical disk
D. None these mentioned

The correct answer is: Can span across multiple physical volumes

Question
Fileystem is created using command

Select one:
A. Mkfs
B. Fsck
C. defrag
D. Format

The correct answer is: Mkfs

Question
Concatenation is the technique of

Select one:
A. Increasing the size of a volume by adding more disks
B. Adding physical volumes together to make a volume group
C. writing a block of data onto one disk and then a block onto another disk in an alternate fashion
D. Filling up a physical volume completely before writing to the next one in a logical volume

The correct answer is: Filling up a physical volume completely before writing to the next one in a logical volume

Question
A MySQL database is involved in persisting random writes to the storage medium quantified by Kilobytes of block data. Which of the below is the suitable metric to measure the performance of the disk operations

Select one:
A. Input Output Operations Per Second
B. Mega Bytes Per Second

The correct answer is: Input Output Operations Per Second

Question
Which of the below attributes to the latency in the data transfer between application and storage Hard disks?

Select one:
A. Head Seek Time between the Platters
B. None of these
C. Cache Miss
D. Disk Controller Queuing

The correct answer is: Cache Miss

Question
MLC has _______________ PE cycles and _______________ in performance compared to SLC SSDs. Where - MLC- MultiLevelCell  ; SLC-SingleLevelCell

Select one:
A. More, Low
B. Less , Low
C. Less , High
D. More ,High

The correct answer is: Less, Low

Question
In a Flash Memory, how is the content of a cell changed to 1 from 0?

Select one:
A. By erasing the content of the cell
B. By block erase operation and rewriting the content of the block
C. By writing 1 to the cell
D. By erasing the content of the cell before writing 1

The correct answer is:  By block erase operation and rewriting the content of the block

Question
Which of the following statement is true for a Single Level Cell?
Select one:
A. It has the longest life span
B. It allows more data storage
C. Singe level cells are cheap
D. It offers medium performance as compared to other formats

The correct answer is: It has the longest life span

Question
Which of the following is applicable to Enterprise class solid state devices?

Select one:
A. They have more over provisioned capacity
B. Warranty terms are same as all Solid state devices
C. They have the simple controller firmware
D. They have same amount of cache is not less than consumer class devices

The correct answer is: They have more over provisioned capacity

Question
Which of the following statement is true about Striping?

Select one:
A. A stripe is stored on a single disk
B. Striping reduces the disk performance
C. Striping helps in data recovery
D. Striping parallelises I/O operation

The correct answer is: Striping parallelises I/O operation

Question
Do iSCSI storage mandatory to required switch?

Select one:
Yes
No
None
a & b both

The correct answer is: No

Question
Best I/O Technique for low volume data transfer

Select one:
Polling
Interrupt Driven
DMA
b and c

The correct answer is: Interrupt Driven

Question
What is the memory bandwidth requirement of a machine executing 4*105 instructions per second, average instruction size of 3.8 bits and 7.2 bits of average operand size per instruction?

Select one:
1.52 Mbps
0.72 Mbps
2.88 Mbps
4.4 Mbps

The correct answer is: 4.4 Mbps

Question
Which version of NFS Mandates strong security

Select one:
NFSv1
NFSv2
NFSv3
NFSv4

The correct answer is: NFSv4

Question
Estimate the sustained transfer rate of a drive if disk drive spins at 7200 RPM, has a sector size of 512 bytes, and holds 160 sectors per track around

Select one:
9400 KB/s
9600 KB/s
9800 KB/s
10000 KB/s

The correct answer is: 9800 KB/s

Question
Which storage Technology uses low level disk drive access commands like READ block, WRITE block and READ capacity

Select one:
NAS
SAN
DAS
All the above

The correct answer is: SAN

Question
How do we meet memory bandwidth requirements?

Select one:
L1 cache, L2 cache and DRAM
Direct Attached Storage and Network Storage
Archival Storage
All the above

The correct answer is: All the above

Question
PCI Bus Lines contains

Select one:
Control Lines
Data Lines
Address Lines
All the above

The correct answer is: All the above

Question
How many disk failure can disk failure can be withstood by RAID 6?

Select one:
1
2
3
4

The correct answer is: 2

Question
Which of the following model makes the server to keep track of cached copies and notifies them on update

Select one:
Asynchronous writing model
Cache verification model
Callback model
Leasing model

The correct answer is: Callback model

Question
What is the capacity of the disk with 5 platters. 2 surfaces per platter, 20000 tracks per surface, 300 sectors per track and 512 bytes per sector

Select one:
30.72GB
24.40GB
21.40GB
15.16GB

The correct answer is: 30.72GB

Question
If average latency is 2.99 ms and average seeks time is 4.7 ms, then IOPS of the disk will be?

Select one:
129
130
128
131

The correct answer is: 130

Question
A certain hard disk has 16 cylinders, 480 tracks per cylinder, 32 sectors per track, and 512 bytes per sector. What is its storage capacity?

Select one:
125,829,120 bytes
125,929,120 bytes
125,729,120 bytes

125,629,120 bytes

The correct answer is: 125,829,120 bytes

Question
If MTTF of  a disk is 80000hrs what us MTTF of an array of 8 disks

Select one:
640000 hrs
10000 hrs
80000 hrs
40000 hrs

The correct answer is: 10000 hrs

Question
Identify a network file protocol in the below mentioned set

Select one:
FC
CIFS
SCSI
NAS

The correct answer is: CIFS

Question
Which option is dedicated for file sharing?

Select one:
bimodal
network attached storage
stealth
storage area network

The correct answer is: network attached storage

Question
If read and write performance is the only criterion, which would you choose?

Select one:
RAID 0
RAID 1
RAID 5
RAID 50

The correct answer is: RAID 0

Question
Which of the following RAID levels guarantees double disk failure protection?

Select one:
Raid 5
Raid 6
Raid 0+1
Raid 1+0

The correct answer is: Raid 6

Question
In SAN network which type of switch used typically?

Select one:
Director switch
Intelligent switch
IP switch
Hub

The correct answer is: Intelligent switch

Question
What is the major function of backup?

Select one:
1. To archive old files
2. To archive sensitive files and emails
3. To be able to recovery data to a point in time
4. To roll an application back up to a previous time

The correct answer is: To be able to recovery data to a point in time

Question
What kind of backup allows a system to be backed up without being shut down?

Select one:
1. Hot backup
2. Warm backup
3. Frozen backup
4. Cold Backup

The correct answer is: Hot backup

Question
The amount of time it takes to recover a system is referred to as what?

Select one:
1. Recovery Time Objective (RTO)
2. Recovery Point Objective (RPO)
3. Recovery Method Objective (RMO)
4. Recovery Objective (RO)

The correct answer is: Recovery Time Objective (RTO)

Question
MLC has _______________ PE cycles and _______________ in performance compared to SLC SSDs. Where - MLC- MultiLevelCell  ; SLC-SingleLevelCell

Select one:
A. More, Low
B. Less , Low
C. Less , High
D. More ,High

The correct answer is: Less , Low

Question
Which of the following capacity optimization technologies is being described: Space is allocated to volumes on-demand as data is written to the volume?

Select one:
1. Deduplication
2. Compression
3. Auto-tiering
4. Thin Provisioning

The correct answer is: Thin Provisioning

Question
Which of the following describes a “backup window”?

Select one:
1. Period of time during which server and application backups can occur
2. Period of time during which data can be restored
3. Period of time during which server and application upgrades can take place
4. Period of time when servers are shutdown so that they can be backed up

The correct answer is: Period of time during which server and application backups can occur

Question
What is a common factor influencing the need for archiving?

Select one:
1. Simplicity of implementation
2. Legislation
3. Performance
4. Cost

The correct answer is: Legislation

Question
Which of the following is not commonly a trait of a snapshot?

Select one:
1. Space efficient
2. Point in Time copy
3. Pointer based
4. Full block copy

The correct answer is: Full block copy

Question
What kind of scenarios does storage replication assist in recovery from?

Select one:
1. User accidentally deleting data
2. Virus
3. Power failures and natural disasters
4. Replication data corruption

The correct answer is: Power failures and natural disasters

Question
What kind of backup backs up data over the SAN without data passing through the app server?

Select one:
1. LAN-free backup
2. WAN backup
3. LAN based backup
4. Serverless backup

The correct answer is: Serverless backup

Question
What physical component does a host need in order to connect to a FC SAN?
Select one:
1. HBA
2. HCA
3. LOM NIC
4. ToE NIC

The correct answer is: HBA

Question
Which of the following is a benefit of storage virtualization?

Select one:
1. Simplified storage management
2. Reduced number of storage arrays
3. Increased capacity
4. Increased support levels

The correct answer is: Simplified storage management

Question
Which of the following replication technologies offer guaranteed zero data loss if recovering from a replica volume?

Select one:
1. Asynchronous replication
2. Synchronous replication
3. Application layer replication
4. Three site cascade topology

The correct answer is: Synchronous replication

Question
What is the most common technique used for finding duplicate blocks/data?

Select one:
1. Encryption
2. Hashing/fingerprinting
3. Storing all blocks in an content addressable object store
4. Bit-for-bit comparisons on all new blocks

The correct answer is: Hashing/fingerprinting

Question
Which capacity optimization technology is being described: Recognizing blocks of data already stored, and only storing a single copy?

Select one:
1. Tiering
2. Compression
3. Over-provisioning
4. Deduplication

The correct answer is: Deduplication

Question
Which protocol does Fibre Channel Protocol encapsulate on a FC SAN?

Select one:
1. SAS
2. ATA
3. iSCSI
4. SCSI

The correct answer is: SCSI

Question
Which of the following effectively describes capacity optimization technologies?

Select one:
1. Technologies used to improve the performance of data stored on disk
2. Technologies used to reduce the space required to store persistent data
3. Technologies used to duplicate stored data
4. Technologies used to reduce the power consumed by media used to store data

The correct answer is: Technologies used to reduce the space required to store persistent data

Question
Logical volume managers are examples of what type of storage virtualization?

Select one:
1. Out-of-band virtualization
2. Host based virtualization
3. Controller based virtualization
4. Network based virtualization

The correct answer is: Host based virtualization

Question
How do devices on an iSCIS SAN learn about topology changes and the likes?

Select one:
1. State Change Notifications
2. Discovery Domains
3. Network broadcasts
4. Rescanning the bus

The correct answer is: Discovery Domains

Question
What is a potential advantage of array based replication over and above hypervisor and application based replication?

Select one:
1. More tightly integrated with applications
2. Offloads replication work from the host
3. Requires smaller replication links
4. Requires less hardware

The correct answer is: Offloads replication work from the host

Question
Which technology allows administrators to allocate more storage than they actually have?

Select one:
1. Right-provisioning
2. Over-provisioning
3. Under-provisioning
4. Thick-provisioning