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Question:
For the following vectors x and y, calculate the cosine similarity and euclidean distance measures:
x =(4,4,4,4), y=(2,2,2,2)

Solution:


Question:
Consider the one-dimensional data set shown on the below table

x	X	Difference (x & X)	Y
5.0	0.6	4.4	−
5.0	3.2	1.8	−
5.0	4.5	0.5	+
5.0	4.6	0.4	+
5.0	4.9	0.1	+
5.0	5.2	0.2	−
5.0	5.6	0.6	−
5.0	5.8	0.8	+
5.0	7.1	2.1	−
5.0	9.5	4.5	−

Using Majority Vote, 9-nearest neighbor: −

Question:
Suppose a group of 12 sales price records has been sorted as follows:
5; 10; 11; 13; 15; 35; 50; 55; 72; 90; 204; 215:
Partition them into three bins by each of the following methods.
(a) equal-frequency partitioning
(b) equal-width partitioning
(c) clustering

Answer:
(a) equal-frequency (equidepth) partitioning:
Partition the data into equidepth bins of depth 4: [given as n=4]
Bin 1: 5, 10, 11, 13
Bin 2: 15, 35, 50, 55
Bin 3: 72, 90, 204, 215

(b) equal-width partitioning:
Partitioning the data into 3 equi-width bins will require the width to be (215−5)/3 = 70.
We get interval like- (1,70),(71,140),(141,210),(211,280)
Bin 1: 5, 10, 11, 13, 15, 35, 50, 55
Bin 2:72, 90
Bin 3: 204
Bin 4: 215

(c) clustering:
Using K-means clustering to partition the data into three bins we get
Bin 1: 5, 10, 11, 13, 15, 35
Bin 2: 50, 55, 72, 90
Bin 3: 204, 215

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Question:
1. Pick the odd one out and say why?:
a. WBS
b. Gantt chart
c. Prototype
d. Slip Chart
e. Time chart

Answer: c. Other four relates to methods of project scheduling.

Question: How do you create agile processes to manage unpredictability?

Answer:  Software increments must be delivered in short time periods and Software processes must adapt to changes incrementally

Question: Which of the following does not take account of the dependencies between activities? 
a. Activity network  
b. Resource histogram 
c. Work breakdown structure   
d. Gantt chart

Answer: WBS, rest of the activities involve multiple activities linkages.

Question:  Based on what SDLC deliverable, acceptance criteria for a project be derived and why and also give one example of NFR acceptance criteria.

Answer: The acceptance criteria should be derived from the Requirements Specification, which is where the users’ stated needs are documented. Eample, ‘a response time of less than 2 seconds for 90% of transactions’ is a lot more precise than ‘a fast response time’.

Question:  Explain the difference between effort and elapsed time. What is the significance of this difference for project planning purposes?

Answer: Effort is the total volume of work involved in a task and is best thought of as how long it would take to accomplish if one person were assigned to it.  Elapsed time, on the other hand, is how long the task will take from start to finish and this will depend on the effort involved, how many people are assigned to the task and what delays or external dependencies are involved.


Question:  Compute the function point value, corresponding effort (state your assumption) and the Minimum time to develop for that effort for a project with the following information domain characteristics.
Duration: use the formula :  2.5*(Effort)^exponent   Exponent can be :0.32,0.35,0.38

Question: Read the following project scenario and suggest your best approach by precisely answering the questions (make your own assumptions and state them clearly)
You are currently the Project Manager (PM) for the first development project of EuroShell—the prestigious customer who has recently signed an MoU with your company—XcelPro--for a multi-million-dollar business over the next 5 years. The project spans a period of 9 months and it involves several new technologies/tools. In addition, the customer keeps changing the requirements at an average rate of 1-2 change-requests (CR) per month. You are asked to send regular weekly status reports to the customer’s PM. The customer has not raised any major issue (nor responded to your regular status reports) till the final product is delivered for acceptance testing (UAT) during which your Delivery Head (your boss) received a major escalation (mail) from the customer (with a copy to XcelPro’s CEO) citing various defects observed and in turn seriously doubting XcelPro’s capability to develop and deliver software product.

Q1) You are asked to prepare a report/PPT as response to the escalation mail by holding a meeting via video conference call with customer.  Who are all the people to be involved in the meeting? What are agenda/items in your report/PPT? What are your recommended methods/techniques for presentation of data/issues so that the meeting concludes well with renewed trust in the company’s management and its QMS?  5 Marks

Q2) What was the format/Template of your project report?  Why do you think your customer did not respond to your regular weekly status reports (and of course, jumped with an escalation only at the end of delivery)? What factors (internal/external) contributed to this escalation?  If you were to redesign your project status report to elicit frequent responses from customers, what would you do?   5 Marks

Question 
Which of the following describes RFP?

Select one:
Requirements for a Project issued by the customer
Request for Project issued by vendor
Request for Proposal issued by the customer
Requirements for Proposal prepared by vendor

The correct answer is: Request for Proposal issued by the customer

Question 
The following closely resembles a software contract

Select one:
Purchase Order issued by the customer
MoU between customer and vendor
Legal document containing Terms & Conditions
Requirements document prepared by customer

The correct answer is: MoU between customer and vendor

Question 
The ownership of software developed in a typical project with T&M model rests with

Select one:
Vendor
Customer
Jointly shared between customer and vendor
Escrow agency

The correct answer is: Customer

Question 
Limited Tendering process is normally used for

Select one:
Select projects with unique technology
Maintaining confidentiality
Eliminating competition
Identifying and eliminating weak vendors

The correct answer is: Select projects with unique technology

Question 
The primary goal of agile methodology is

Select one:
Reduce documentation overhead
Produce time-to-market products/services
Develop product in close collaboration with customers
All the mentioned

The correct answer is: All the mentioned

Question 
The following is one approach for Risk Transfer in projects

Select one:
Buy insurance from third-party agencies
Distribute risk equally between customer and vendor
Customer managing risk
All the mentioned

The correct answer is: Buy insurance from third-party agencies

Question 
Function Point (FP) Method of estimation is best used when

Select one:
Actual size of the final code (SLOC) is not known
Requirements are unclear
Technology/Development Tools are not yet known
Water-Fall Model is adopted as development methodology

The correct answer is: Technology/Development Tools are not yet known

Question
SCRUM Meetings are conducted in one of the variations of

Select one:
Rapid Prototyping model
Agile Model
Incremental & Iterative Model
All the mentioned

The correct answer is: Agile Model

Question 
The key role of Program Manager is one of

Select one:
Resource Leverage across projects
Escalation point above Project Manager
Project Information Reporting to Steering Committee
Relationship Management with customer

The correct answer is: Resource Leverage across projects

Question 
The major goal of RAD model of development is

Select one:
Reduce cost of development and time
Identify erroneous requirements early in the project
Prototype development before undertaking investment
Avoid Risk Management

The correct answer is: Reduce cost of development and time

Question 
Identification of regulatory standards for development is done during

Select one:
Requirements analysis
Contract preparation
Quality Planning
All the mentioned

The correct answer is: All the mentioned

Question 
Requirements for Proposal is prepared by

Select one:
Vendor as self-assessment of its capabilities
Customer as part of investigating vendor potential
Third-party agency to assess credit-worthiness of customer
Customer during the closure of the project

The correct answer is: Customer as part of investigating vendor potential

Question
Assignment of People to  activities in projects is done during the following phase

Select one:
Activity Planning
Resource Scheduling
Skill Assessment
Project Monitoring & Control

The correct answer is: Resource Scheduling

Question 
Warranty Maintenance of product commences when

Select one:
Acceptance and Delivery of the product is completed
Integration Testing is complete
A separate Maintenance contrast is issued by the customer
Defects start surfacing in the delivered product

The correct answer is: Acceptance and Delivery of the product is completed

Question 
Going by the experience of many IT projects in India, Fixed-Price Contracts are mostly advantageous to

Select one:
Customer
Vendor
Risk Manager
Finance Manager

The correct answer is: Customer

Question 
The following tool can be used for Project Status Reporting

Select one:
GANTT chart
MS-Excel
MS-Project
All the mentioned

The correct answer is: All the mentioned

Question 
Risk Analysis is done in Sprial Model of development after

Select one:
Every iteration
Requirements phase
System Testing
All the mentioned

The correct answer is: Every iteration

Question 
Software Product Quality is primarily determined by

Select one:
No. of Defects reported
Usability
Schedule/Cost overrun
Marketability

The correct answer is: No. of Defects reported

Question 
The role of Project Steering Committee is

Select one:
a. Govern day-to-day operations of the project
b. Report project status to the CEO
c. Escalation mechanism setup by the customer
d. High-level monitoring of the project by key stakeholders

The correct answer is: High-level monitoring of the project by key stakeholders

Question 
Critical Path in a project activity network diagram indicates

Select one:
Chain of activities requiring common resources
Path of least resistance to delay
Activities whose resources cannot be scheduled late
Activities which have zero or minimum float

The correct answer is: Activities which have zero or minimum float

Question 
Contingency measures in Risk Planning are provided for

Select one:
Preventing potential risks identified early on
Reduce the probability of occurrence of risk events
Reducing the impact of risk should it occur
Minimizing the cost of risk mitigation activities

The correct answer is: Reducing the impact of risk should it occur

Question 
To shorten the duration of a project, the following can be done

Select one:
Reducing the duration of activities on critical path
Eliminating non-critical activities
Providing more resources to activities with large float
By employing critical-chain analysis

The correct answer is: Reducing the duration of activities on critical path

Question 
The following method of project monitoring is more appropriate for T&M projects

Select one:
Weekly or Monthly review
Milestone based
Decision-point based
Upon acceptance criteria

The correct answer is: Weekly or Monthly review

Question
Earned Value Analysis (EVA) helps in

Select one:
Cost-monitoring of project
Monitoring of schedule overruns
Monitoring of cumulative effort overrun
All the given options are .

The correct answer is: All the given options are .

Question 
COCOMO II is a software estimation tool based on

Select one:
Parametric method of cost estimation
Function-point analysis of size
Analogical reasoning of past projects
Euclidian distance between similar projects

The correct answer is: Parametric method of cost estimation

Question
As a software manager, when you will decide the number of people required for a software project?
Select one:
a. Before the scope is determined.
b. None of the given options.
c. Before an estimate of the development effort is made.
d. After an estimate of the development effort is made.

The correct answer is: After an estimate of the development effort is made.

Question
Which of the following is an important factor that can affect the accuracy and efficacy of estimates?
Select one:
a. Project complexity
b. Degree of structural uncertainty
c. Planning process
d. Project size

The correct answer is: Project size

Question
Which of the following is a collection of component versions that make up a system?
Select one:
a. Baseline
b. None of the mentioned
c. Version
d. Codeline

The correct answer is: Baseline

Question
Earned value analysis does not integrate:
Select one:
a. Quality
b. Risk Register
c. Time
d. Cost
The correct answer is:  Quality

Question
Identify the sub-process of process improvement
Select one:
a. Process distribution
b. De-processification
c. Process analysis
d. Process introduction

The correct answer is: Process analysis

Question
During which stage of Risk planning are risks prioritized based on probability and impact?
Select one:
a. Identify Risks
b. Perform Qualitative risk analysis
c. Plan Risk responses
d. Perform Quantitative risk analysis

The correct answer is: Perform Qualitative risk analysis

Question 
The degree to which the design specifications are followed during manufacturing is known as_______. [    ]
Select one:
a. Quality of design
b. Quality of coding
c. Quality of conformance
d. Quality of testing

The correct answer is: Quality of conformance

Question 
Risk monitoring is associated with which phase of the SDLC?
Select one:
a. Project Planning
b. Project Closure
c. Project Execution
d. Project Initiation

The correct answer is: Project Execution

Question
Which of the following is not a project constraint?
Select one:
a. Scope
b. Budget
c. Team
d. Resources

The correct answer is: Team

Question
Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management?
Select one:
a. System management
b. Change management
c. Internship management
d. Version management

The correct answer is: Internship management

Question
If probability of risk is 50% and the impact is 9 what is the risk priority?
Select one:
a. 4.6
b. 4.3
c. 4.4
d. 4.5

The correct answer is: 4.5

Question
Risk management is one of the most important jobs for a
Select one:
a. Project manager
b. Production team
c. Investor
d. Client

The correct answer is: Project manager

Question
Root Cause Analysis relates to:
Select one:
a. Quality Audits
b. Process Analysis
c. Performance Measurements
d. Quality Control Measurements

The correct answer is: Process Analysis

Question
Review process works best when number of members are in between:
Select one:
a. 5-7
b. 2-3
c. 5-6
d. 4-7

The correct answer is: 5-7

Question
PPP can serve its purpose, if we eliminate projects that incur excessive
Select one:
a. B: Validity
b. A: Risk
c. Both A: & C:
d. C: Cost

The correct answer is: Both A: & C:

Question
Identify artifacts you refer while writing the test cases ?
Select one:
a. C: Test case document
b. A: Functional requirement specification
c. A: & B: only
d. B: Use Cases

The correct answer is: A: & B: only

Question
Typical selection process is i. Create a job specification ii. Obtain applicants iii. Select potential candidates from CVs. iv. Other procedures. v. Further selection, including interview vi. Create a job holder profile. The order is:
Select one:
a. i, iii, v, ii, vi, iv
b. i, ii, iii, iv, v, vi
c. i, ii, vi, iii, v, iv
d. i, vi, ii, iii, v, iv

The correct answer is i, vi, ii, iii, v, iv

Question
As per Tuckman and Jensen, five basic stages of team development are Forming, Storming, Norming, Perfroming, Adjouring. The meaning of storming is
Select one:
a. The emphasis is now on the tasks in hand
b. Conflict arise as various members of the group try to exert leadership and the group’s methods of operation are being established
c. The members of the group get to know each other
d. Conflicts are largely settled and feeling of group identity emerges

The correct answer is: Conflict arise as various members of the group try to exert leadership and the group’s methods of operation are being established

Question
You are managing a project with budget at completion (BAC) $ 80,000. The actual cost to date you have seen is $ 25,000 and earned value is $ 17,000. You calculate estimate to complete (ETC) to $ 75,000 by doing bottom-up sum of all costs. After so many calculations, what is the estimate at completion (EAC) for the project?
Select one:
a. $ 60,000
b. $ 100,000
c. $ 53,000
d. $ 57,000

The correct answer is: $ 100,000

Question
What are the 2 important factors associated with Risk?

Select one:
a. Issue & Effect
b. Cause & Effect
c. Cause & Issue
d. Effect & Probability

The correct answer is: Cause & Effect

Question
When do you think Quality Assurance/planning activities should start?

Select one:
a. should start from the beginning of the project. Correct
b. should start at the end of implementation of the project.
c. should start after the development phase of the project.
d. should start after the solutioning phase of the project.


The correct answer is: should start from the beginning of the project.

Question
Which of the following is not a project factor that should be considered when planning the structure of software engineering teams?

Select one:
a. The difficulty of the problem to be solved
b. High frustration caused by personal, business, or technological factors that causes friction among team members
c. The rigidity of the delivery date
d. The degree of sociability required for the project


The correct answer is: The degree of sociability required for the project

Question
A highly cohesive team needs to guard against the problem of
Select one:
a. Social loafing
b. Bureaucratic bypass syndrome Incorrect
c. Groupthink
d. over communication


The correct answer is: Groupthink

Question


Question

                                                                
Question
Which is not Fault categories in these?

Select one:
a. Extra State Error
b. Logical Error
c. Transfer Error
d. Missing State Error

The correct answer is: Logical Error

Question
Adding Variables and Conditions to FSM is called

Select one:
a. None
b. FSM++
c. Advanced FSM
d. Extended FSM

The correct answer is: Extended FSM

Question
Characteristics of Path-based Integration

Select one:
a. Interfaces are behavioral
b. Interfaces are behavioral
c. None
d. Co-functioning, Interfaces are structural and interactions are behavioral

The correct answer is: Co-functioning, Interfaces are structural and interactions are behavioral

Question
Which one of the followings is a Call Graph-Based Integration

Select one:
a. Neighbourhood and Closed-users
b. All of the above
c. Pairwise and Neighbourhood
d. Pairwise and Closed-Users

The correct answer is: Pairwise and Neighbourhood

Question
Path based integration testing is also called as

Select one:
a. Hybrid integration testing
b. Pairwise integration testing
c. Neighbourhood integration testing
d. Sandwich integration testing

The correct answer is:Hybrid integration testing

Question
MM path testing is used is

Select one:
a. model based testing
b. object oriented testing
c. state based testing
d. System testing

The correct answer is:object oriented testing

Question
What are the Integration testing appraoch classified under Call Graph-Based Integration:

Select one:
a. Neighbourhood, Sandwich
b. Pair-Wise, Top-down
c. Bottom-up,Neighbourhood
d. Pair-Wise, Neighbourhood

The correct answer is:Pair-Wise, Neighbourhood

Question
In Data Flow Testing, an Use is a statement that __________ a value of variable

Select one:
a. All options
b. validates
c. references
d. Manipulates

The correct answer is:references

Question
Which of the following is black-box oriented and can be accomplished by applying the same black-box methods discussed for conventional software?

Select one:
a. Test case design
b. Both Conventional testing and OO system validation testing
c. OO system validation testing
d. Conventional testing

The correct answer is:Both Conventional testing and OO system validation testing

Question
Which of the testing processes is the process of verifying the interaction between software components?

Select one:
a. Integration Testing
b. System Testing
c. Object-Oriented Testing
d. Unit Testing

The correct answer is:Integration Testing

Question
In an Object Oriented System, if A derives from B and B derives from C, then which one of the following is incorrect with respect to OO testing?

Select one:
a. To test A, create a class by flattening technique (merge methods and attributes of A, B and C)
b. Cannot directly test A- need to flatten it because it is a sub-class
c. To test C, create a class by flattening technique (merge methods and attributes of A, B and C)
d. To test B, create a class by flattening technique (merge methods and attributes of B and C)

The correct answer is:To test C, create a class by flattening technique (merge methods and attributes of A, B and C)

Question
A usage node USE(v, n) is a predicate use (denoted as P-use)

Select one:
a. iff the statement n is an output statement
b. iff the statement n is a predicate statement
c. iff the statement n is procedure call
d. iff the statement n is an input statement

The correct answer is:iff the statement n is a predicate statement

Question
Issue with class flattening is

Select one:
a. Uncertainty-flattened class is not part of final system
b. meaning of system will change
c. None of the options
d. create irrelevant class

The correct answer is:Uncertainty-flattened class is not part of final system

Question
Integration testing is

Select one:
a. process of verifying interaction between software components
b. ALL
c. process of testing interfaces
d. process of verifying interaction between different programs

The correct answer is:process of verifying interaction between software components

Question
operation error in fault model is tested by

Select one:
a. Extra state testing
b. Missing state testing
c. Incorrect state transition
d. Error generated upon transition

The correct answer is:Error generated upon transition

Question
Which is NOT a higher level of testing?

Select one:
a. System Testing
b. Unit Testing
c. Integration Testing
d. Sub-System Testing

The correct answer is:Unit Testing

Question
Class flattening is

Select one:
a. Association of attributes and operation of a class
b. Removing unnecessary attributes and operations from class
c. A composition of various classes together
d. Original class expanded to include all the attributes and operation it inherits

The correct answer is: Original class expanded to include all the attributes and operation it inherits

Question
which statement is not True in case of Neighbourhood?

Select one:
a. Interior nodes = nodes - (source nodes + sink nodes)
b. Neighbourhoods = nodes - sink nodes
c. Neighbourhoods = sink nodes + nodes
d. Neibhourhoods = interior nodes + source nodes

The correct answer is:Neighbourhoods = sink nodes + nodes

Question
class flattening is used to test following object oriented feature

Select one:
a. constructor
b. template
c. polymorphism
d. inheritance

The correct answer is:inheritance

Question
Which View of class testing is used for Inheritance?

Select one:
a. Compile Time View
b. None
c. Execution View
d. Static View

The correct answer is:Compile Time View

Question
Call Graph (CG) based approach is

Select one:
a. Both Pair-wise and Neighborhood integration
b. Neither Pair-wise integration nor Neighborhood integration
c. Only Pair-wise integration
d. Only Neighborhood integration

The correct answer is: Both Pair-wise and Neighborhood integration

Question
In Top-Down integration testing, which one of the followings that you may need to develop?

Select one:
a. Drivers
b. Connectors
c. Interfaces
d. Stubs

The correct answer is:Stubs

Question
Data Flow Testing is best where _____________________ is high.

Select one:
a. Complexity requirement
b. Usability
c. Reliability requirement
d. Computation

The correct answer is:Reliability requirement

Question
One of the  issues with flattened class could be the following:

Select one:
a. A flattened class will be part of a final system, so some redundancy of testing remains
b. A flattened class will not be part of a final system, so no uncertainty remains
c. A flattened class will not be part of a final system, so some uncertainty remains
d. A flattened class will not be part of a final system, so no uncertainty remains

The correct answer is:A flattened class will not be part of a final system, so some uncertainty remains

Question
When will the working version of the system be ready in case Sandwich approach?

Select one:
a. None
b. Early
c. Never
d. Late

The correct answer is:Early

Question
Number of Integration Cycles/Sessions in Integration Testing is:

Select one:
a. Session = nodes  +  leaves  + edges
b. Session = nodes  – leaves  +  edge
c. Session = nodes  + leaves  –  edges
d. Session = nodes  –  leaves  – edges

The correct answer is:Session = nodes  – leaves  +  edge

Question
Big Bang integration approach:

Select one:
a. Suffers with problem of fault isolation
b. None of the option
c. Requires creation of a large number of stubs and drivers
d. Number of integration testing sessions is 2

The correct answer is:Suffers with problem of fault isolation.

Question
System of systems is

Select one:
a. A set of component systems
b. A collection of cooperating systems
c. All of the above options
d. A  collection of autonomous systems

The correct answer is: A collection of cooperating systems

Question
Select the odd man out

Select one:
a. Sandwich
b. Pair-Wise
c. Top-down
d. Bottom-up

The correct answer is: Pair-Wise

Question
Sandwich integration strategies

Select one:
a. use equal number of stubs and drivers
b. use less stubs and more drivers
c. use more stubs and less drivers
d. use both stubs and drivers

The correct answer is: use both stubs and drivers

Question
Parallel Testing is highly used in which Integration approach?

Select one:
a. Sandwich
b. Big Bang
c. Bottom-up
d. Top-down

The correct answer is: Big Bang

Question
Which of the following determines state diagram?

Select one:
a. The UML notation for specifying finite automata is the state diagram
b. None of the mentioned
c. All of the mentioned
d. In state diagrams, states are represented by rounded rectangles

The correct answer is: All of the mentioned

Question
Data Flow testing refers to forms of structural testing that focus on:

Select one:
a. All options
b. An unifying structure of test coverage metrics
c. Serves as a “reality check” on path testing
d. The point at which variables receive values and the point at which these values are used (or referenced)

The correct answer is: All options

Question
if (v>0) then print (v) represents:

Select one:
a. USE of v
b. C-use of v
c. Define of v
d. P-use of v

The correct answer is: P-use of v

Question
In Bottom-Up integration testing, which one of the followings that you may need to develop?

Select one:
a. Interfaces
b. Stubs
c. Drivers
d. Connectors

The correct answer is: Drivers

Question
What is the main problem with static view of a class while treating class as a unit?

Select one:
a. Methods of the class are ignored
b. Functions of the class are ignored
c. Inheritances are ignored
d. Data of the class are ignored

The correct answer is: Inheritances are ignored

Question
In data flow testing, objective is to find

Select one:
a. All du-paths
b. All dc-paths that are not du-paths
c. All du-paths that are not dc-paths
d. All dc-paths

The correct answer is: All du-paths

Question
Data Flow Testing refer to

Select one:
a. Point at which the variable receive values and the point at which it is used
b. Understanding how Data changes to Result
c. None of the options
d. Inputting Data

The correct answer is: Point at which the variable receive values and the point at which it is used

Question
Different strategies used in state model to design test cases are

Select one:
a. State Testing, Transition Testing, Path Testing
b. Transition Testing, Coverage Testing
c. Code Testing, Path Testing
d. State Testing, Code Testing

The correct answer is: State Testing, Transition Testing, Path Testing

Question 
Which of the testing methods is NOT part of decomposition based integration testing?

Select one:
a. Circular
b. Bottom-Up
c. Top-Down
d. Sandwich

The correct answer is: Circular

Question
A rich extention of FSM

Select one:
a. None
b. Path testing
c. Petri nets
d. State Charts

The correct answer is: State Charts

Question
One of the  issues with flattened class could be the following:

Select one:
a. A flattened class will not be part of a final system, so some uncertainty remains
b. A flattened class will not be part of a final system, so no uncertainty remains
c. A flattened class will be part of a final system, so some redundancy of testing remains
d. A flattened class will not be part of a final system, so no uncertainty remains

The correct answer is: A flattened class will not be part of a final system, so some uncertainty remains

Question
Which one is not a State amongst these?

Select one:
a. Name
b. Colour
c. Barking
d. Age

The correct answer is: Barking

Question
A usage node USE(v, n) is a computation use (denoted as C-use)

Select one:
a. iff the statement n is an input/output statement
b. None of the options
c. iff the statement n is a predicate statement
d. iff the statement n is a Computation statement

The correct answer is: iff the statement n is a Computation statement

Question
Software Test Stubs are

Select one:
a. Used to connect a software with a driver
b. None of the options
c. Programs which simulate the behaviors of software components that are the control modules of a under test module
d. Programs which simulate the behaviors of software components that are the dependent modules of a under test module

The correct answer is: Programs which simulate the behaviors of software components that are the dependent modules of a under test module

Question
A Module Execution Path (MEP) is

Select one:
a. None of the options
b. A sequence of statements that begins with a ‘Source Node’ and ends with a ‘Sink Node’, with no intervening sink nodes
c. A sequence of statements that begins with a ‘Sink Node’ and ends with a ‘Source Node’, with no intervening sink nodes
d. A sequence of statements that begins with a couple of ‘Source Nodes’ and ends with a couple of ‘Sink Nodes’, with no intervening sink nodes

The correct answer is: A sequence of statements that begins with a ‘Source Node’ and ends with a ‘Sink Node’, with no intervening sink nodes

Question
Operation error in a fault model is:

Select one:
a. Corrupt input
b.  input function
c. Output values are garbled
d. Error generated upon transition like  output function

The correct answer is: Error generated upon transition like  output function

Question
What is the BEST definition of flattened class?

Select one:
a. A flattened class is an original class expanded to include all the attributes and functions.
b. A flattened class is an original class expanded to include all the attributes and operations it inherits
c. A flattened class is an original class expanded to include all the attributes of the class itself.
d. A flattened class is an original class expanded to include all the attributes but not the operations it inherits

The correct answer is: A flattened class is an original class expanded to include all the attributes and operations it inherits

Question
Which are not Issues with Flattening in Inheritence

Select one:
a. Uncertainity
b. flattened class is not part of final system
c. flattened class is part of the final system
d. Similar issue as insrumented code

The correct answer is: flattened class is part of the final system

Question
Transfer error in a fault model is:

Select one:
a. Incorrect state transition
b. None of the option
c. Specification-based testing technique
d. transition to next state

The correct answer is: Incorrect state transition

Question
Testing criteria of state machine are

Select one:
a. state coverage,transition coverage and path coverage
b. All the options are correct
c. path coverage
d. state coverage only

The correct answer is: state coverage,transition coverage and path coverage

Question
Data Flow testing helps to resolve the define/reference  anomalies:

Select one:
a. A variable that is used but never defined
b. All options
c. A variable that is defined twice before it is used
d. A variable that is defined but never used (referenced)

The correct answer is: All options

Question
Fault categories include

Select one:
a. new state error,fault state error,operation error,transfer error
b. operation error and transfer error
c. transmission error
d. operation error,transfer error,extra state error,missing state error

The correct answer is: operation error,transfer error,extra state error,missing state error

Question
Which of the following is true?

Select one:
a. Transitions may be spontaneous, but usually some event triggers them
b. A transition is a change from one state to another
c. All of the mentioned
d. An event is a noteworthy occurrence at a particular time; events have no duration

The correct answer is: All of the mentioned   

Question
Software Test Drivers are

Select one:
a. None of the options
b. Programs which simulate the behaviors of software components that are the dependent modules of a under test module
c. Used to connect a software with a driver
d. Programs which simulate the behaviors of software components that are the control modules of a under test module

The correct answer is: Programs which simulate the behaviors of software components that are the control modules of a under test module

Question
Issues with Flattening of classes leads to

Select one:
a. None
b. problems like any instrumented code
c. poor testing
d. uncertainity as it is not part of the final system

The correct answer is: uncertainity as it is not part of the final system

Question
Which of the following is a part of testing OO code?

Select one:
a. Integration tests
b. System tests
c. Validation tests
d. Class tests

The correct answer is: Class tests

Question
Which one of  the  following  statements best  reflects realistic  expectations from  introducing MBT  into the software development life cycle?

Select one:
a. Since reuse of a system design model is possible in MBT, after small investment, the usage of MBT in a development process is almost for free.
b. Adding an MBT tool without change in the existing organization and/or test process is an effective approach.
c. MBT users do not need to understand test design techniques because test generation with MBT is fully automated.
d. Carefully introducing changes to the whole test process when introducing MBT, including test team training, helps to obtain measurable progress.

The correct answer is: Carefully introducing changes to the whole test process when introducing MBT, including test team training, helps to obtain measurable progress.

Question
Useful formalism to express concurrency and timing - this is true for which model?

Select one:
a. StateCharts
b. Petri Nets
c. FSM
d. None

The correct answer is: Petri Nets

Question
Flattening of classes is

Select one:
a. Required for testing subclasses
b. Required to overcome the challenges posed by encapsulation concept of OO systems
c. Involves merging methods of a sub-class
d. Creates classes that are a part of the final product

The correct answer is: Required for testing subclasses

Question
The statement v=x+n+2; a definition of v

Select one:
a. None
b. is a computation use of v
c. is a definition of v
d. is a output statement of v

The correct answer is: is a definition of v

Question
In a Definition – Use pair (du pair)

Select one:
a. There should be a control path from d to u along which the variable is not modified
b. All of the options
c. There should be a Definition statement to define a variable (d)
d. There should be a Use statement where the variable is used (u)

The correct answer is: All of the options

Question
What are the Integration testing appraoch classified under Decomposition based:

Select one:
a. Top-down, Pair-Wise, Bottom-up
b. Sandwich, Neighbourhood, Top-down
c. Top-down, Bottom-up, Sandwich, Big-bang
d. Pair-wise, Neighbourhood

The correct answer is: Top-down, Bottom-up, Sandwich, Big-bang

Question
which of following describes system behaviour

Select one:
a. Control flow graph
b. Data Flow graph
c. Path in the flow graphs
d. Finite state machine

The correct answer is: Finite state machine

Question
When will be the interface erros will get detected in case Biga Bang appraoch?

Select one:
a. Never
b. Early
c. None
d. Late

The correct answer is: Late

Question
i=0;if (i<10) { x= i+1; print(x);} How many DU pairs are there for i ?

Select one:
a. 4
b. 1
c. 3
d. 2

The correct answer is: 2

Question
Which one is not an Executable Model?

Select one:
a. Finite State Machines
b. Petri Nets
c. StateCharts
d. Basis Paths


The correct answer is: Basis Paths

Question
One of the  issues with flattened class could be the following:

Select one:
a. A flattened class will be part of a final system, so some redundancy of testing remains
b. A flattened class will not be part of a final system, so no uncertainty remains
c. A flattened class will not be part of a final system, so some uncertainty remains
d. A flattened class will not be part of a final system, so no uncertainty remains


The correct answer is: A flattened class will not be part of a final system, so some uncertainty remains

Question
Testing polymorphism

Select one:
a. is to develop test cases for client that exercise all client bindings to polymorphic calls.
b. is to develop test cases for base and derived classes.
c. is to develop test cases using class flattening
d. is to develop test cases for all possible classes and objects Incorrect

The correct answer is: is to develop test cases for client that exercise all client bindings to polymorphic calls.

Question
i=i+1 represents:

Select one:
a. DEF (i, n)
b. C-USE (i, n)
c. USE (i, n)
d. P-USE (i, n)

The correct answer is: DEF (i, n)

                                          
Question
What is an optimal Huffman code for alphabet b of the following set of frequencies
 a: 45, b:13, c:12, d:16, e:9, f:5
Select one:
a. 111
b. 101
c. 100
d. 001

The correct answer is:101
Question
In flow networks Residual capacity Cf (u,v)=
Select one:
a. c(u,v) – f(u,v)
b. t(u,v) – s(u,v)
c. f(u, v) – c(u,v)
d. s(u,v) – t(u, v)

The correct answer is:c(u,v) – f(u,v)

Question
In Ford-Fulkerson algorithm, flow of the augmenting path is selected based on
Select one:
a. cf(p) =min{ cf (u,v):(u,v)is in f-P }
b. cf(p) =min{ cf (u,v):(u,v)is in p }
c. cf(p) =max{ cf (u,v):(u,v)is in f-P }
d. cf(p) =max{ cf (u,v):(u,v)is in p }

The correct answer is: cf(p) =min{ cf (u,v):(u,v)is in p }

Question
To implement Dijkstra’s shortest path algorithm on unweighted graphs so that it runs in linear time, the data structure to be used is:
Select one:
a. Queue
b. Heap
c. Stack
d. B-Tree

The correct answer is:Queue

Question
In an unweighted, undirected connected graph, the shortest path from a node S to every other node is computed most efficiently, in terms of time complexity by
Select one:
a. Warshall’s algorithm
b. Performing a DFS starting from S.
c. Dijkstra’s algorithm starting from S.
d. Performing a BFS starting from S

The correct answer is:Performing a BFS starting from S

Question
Consider the decision problem 2CNFSAT defined as follows:

Select one:
a. NP-hard, but not NP-complete.
b. solvable in constant time since any input instance is satisfiable.
c. NP-Complete.
d. solvable in polynomial time by reduction to directed graph reachability

The correct answer is:solvable in polynomial time by reduction to directed graph reachability

Question
Find the Running Time of the fastest algorithm to calculate the shortest path between any two vertices of a graph where all edges have equal weights.
Select one:
a. 0(V  log2V+E )
b. 0 (E+V)
c. 0(V log V2+E)
d. 0 (V+E) log2V

The correct answer is:0 (E+V)

Question
Match the following
            Group A                                                                      Group B
a) Dijkstra's single shortest path                                     p) Dynamic Programming
b) Bellmen Ford's single shortest path algorithm           q) Backtracking
c) Floyd Warshell's all pair shortest path algorithm        r) Greedy Algorithm
Select one:
a. a-p,  b-r, c-q
b. a-p,  b-p, c-p
c. a-r,  b-p, c-p
d. a-r,  b-q, c-p

The correct answer is: a-r,  b-p, c-p

Question
Match the following:

              List – I                           List – II

         1 Quick Sort              a Divide and Conquer

         2 Graph colouring     b Greedy

         3 String editing          c Dynamic Programming
                                     
         4 Prim’s Algorithm   d Back tracking
Select one:
a. 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d
b. None of these
c. 1-a, 2-d, 3-c, 4-b
d. 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c

The correct answer is: 1-a, 2-d, 3-c, 4-b

Question
Which of the following statement(s)is / are correct regarding Bellman-Ford shortest path algorithm?
P: Always finds a negative weighted cycle, if one exist s.
Q: Finds whether any negative weighted cycle is reachable
   from the source.
Select one:
a. P Only
b. Neither P nor Q
c. Both P and Q
d. Q Only

The correct answer is: Q Only

Question
The time required to find shortest path in a graph with n vertices and e edges is
Select one:
a. O (e)
b.  O (e²)         
c.  O (n)   
d.  O (n²) 

The correct answer is: O (n²)

Question
There are 5 items as follows

Select one:
a. 260 $
b. 270 $
c. 290$
d. 250$

The correct answer is:260$

Question
Four matrices M1, M2, M3 and M4 of dimensions pxq, qxr, rxs and sxt respectively can be multiplied is several ways with different number of total scalar multiplications. For example, when multiplied as ((M1 X M2) X (M3 X M4)), the total number of multiplications is pqr + rst + prt. When multiplied as (((M1 X M2) X M3) X M4), the total number of scalar multiplications is pqr + prs + pst.
If p = 10, q = 100, r = 20, s = 5 and t = 80, then the number of scalar multiplications needed is
Select one:
a. 44000
b. 19000
c. 25000
d. 248000

The correct answer is:19000

Question
A simple Graph G = L U R, set of 2 non-empty vertices and each vertex from L  has an edge to atleast one vertex of R, is called as
Select one:
a.  Bifocal graph
b. Bipartite Graph
c. Complete graph
d. Flow-network graph

The correct answer is: Bipartite Graph

Question
Ram and Shyam have been asked to show that a certain problem Π is NP-complete. Ram shows a polynomial time reduction from the 3-SAT problem to Π, and Shyam shows a polynomial time reduction from Π to 3-SAT. Which of the following can be inferred from these reductions ?
Select one:
a. Π is NP-complete
b. Π is neither NP-hard, nor in NP
c. Π is NP-hard but not NP-complete
d. Π is in NP, but is not NP-complete

The correct answer is:Π is NP-complete

Question
A sub-sequence of a given sequence is just the given sequence with some elements (possibly none or all) left out. We are given two sequences X[m] and Y[n] of lengths m and n respectively, with indexes of X and Y starting from 0.
We wish to find the length of the longest common sub-sequence(LCS) of X[m] and Y[n] as l(m,n), where an incomplete recursive definition for the function l(i,j) to compute the length of The LCS of X[m] and Y[n] is given below:
l(i,j) = 0, if either i=0 or j=0
       = expr1, if i,j > 0 and X[i-1] = Y[j-1]
       = expr2, if i,j > 0 and X[i-1] != Y[j-1]
Select one:
a. expr2 ≡ max(l(i-1,j-1),l(i,j))
b. expr2 ≡ max(l(i-1, j), l(i, j-1))
c. expr1 ≡ l(i-1, j) + 1
d. expr1 ≡ l(i, j-1)

The correct answer is: expr2 ≡ max(l(i-1, j), l(i, j-1))

Question
If all c(i, j )’s and r(i, j)’s are calculated, then OBST algorithm in worst case takes one of the following time.
Select one:
a. O(log n)
b. O(n³)    
c. O(n log n)   
d. O(n²)

The correct answer is: O(n³)

Question
Kruskal’s algorithm uses-------- and prim’s algorithm uses------ in determining the MST
Select one:
a. edges,edges
b. vertex,vertex
c. edges,vertex
d. vertex,edges

The correct answer is: edges,vertex

Question
For 0/1 KNAPSACK problem, the algorithm takes ________ amount of time for memory table, and ______time to determine the optimal load, for N objects and W as the capacity of KNAPSACK.
Select one:
a. O(NW), O(N)
b. O(NW), O(N+W)
c. O(N), O(NW)
d.   O(N+W), O(NW)

The correct answer is:O(NW), O(N+W)

Question
Consider the following two problems of graph.
1) Given a graph, find if the graph has a cycle that visits every vertex exactly once except the first visited vertex which must be visited again to complete the cycle.
2) Given a graph, find if the graph has a cycle that visits every edge exactly once. Which of the following is true about above two problems
Select one:
a. Both problems belong to P set
b. Problem 1 belongs to P set and 2 belongs to NP Complete set
c. Problem 1 belongs NP Complete set and 2 belongs to P
d. Both problems belong to NP complete set

The correct answer is: Problem 1 belongs NP Complete set and 2 belongs to P